Aufgabe 1)
Ansatz: Wkin = WBeschleuniger
= WB
<=>
Dies hat die Form x2+px+q = 0
Lösung per p-q-Formel und Substitution x = v2
LB | PSB | PS | SPS | LHC | |
v in m/s | 9,53 E7 | 2,856E8 | 2,9975E8 | 2,9979823E8 | 2,99792456745E8 |
% von c | 32 | 95,3 | 99,9863 | 99,999946 | 99,99999958 |
m in kg | 1,86E-27 | 1,81E-26 | 6,09E24 | 1,54E21 | 1,997E-19 |
% von m0 | 1,11 | 10,81 | 3.641 | 920.152 | 119.400.000 |
B in T | -- | 1,29 | 22,8 | 2400 | 45.024 |
f in Hz | -- | 1,8E6 | 9,5E4 | 3,98E4 | 5.749 |